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Practice PRMIA 8011 Exam Pdf | Pass4sure 8011 Dumps Pdf

Practice PRMIA 8011 Exam Pdf | Pass4sure 8011 Dumps Pdf

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Pass4sures is one of the leading platforms that has been helping PRMIA 8011 Exam Questions candidates for many years. Over this long time, period the Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam (8011) exam dumps helped countless Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam (8011) exam questions candidates and they easily cracked their dream PRMIA 8011 Certification Exam. You can also trust Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam (8011) exam dumps and start Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam (8011) exam preparation today.

PRMIA 8011 CCRM Certificate exam is an essential certification for professionals who desire to work in the highly competitive field of risk management. The certificate offers a competitive advantage by providing candidates with a deep understanding of the latest techniques in credit and counterparty risk management. 8011 Exam equips candidates with the skills necessary to identify and evaluate risks associated with credit and counterparty transactions, enabling them to make informed decisions and contribute to the success of their organization.

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PRMIA Credit and Counterparty Manager (CCRM) Certificate Exam Sample Questions (Q287-Q292):

NEW QUESTION # 287
For a given notional amount, which of the following carries the greatest counterparty exposure (assuming the same counterparty credit rating for each):

  • A. A one year certificate of deposit
  • B. A one year forward foreign exchange contract
  • C. A futures contract on an equity index
  • D. A one year interest rate swap

Answer: A

Explanation:
The exposure at default is the greatest for the certificate of deposit as the entire notional amount is exposed to the risk of default. The other choices represent derivatives for which the current replacement value, which would be far less than notional, would be the credit exposure.
Said another way - if the counterparty were to default, the entire money in the CD would be at risk, whereas for the derivative contracts it would only be the replacement value that would be at risk.


NEW QUESTION # 288
Which of the following is a most complete measure of the liquidity gap facing a firm?

  • A. Cumulative liquidity gap
  • B. Marginal liquidity gap
  • C. Residual liquidity gap
  • D. Liquidity at Risk

Answer: C

Explanation:
Marginal liquidity gap measures the expected net change in liquidity over, say, a day. It is just equal to the liquidity inflow minus liquidity outflow. The cumulative liquidity gap measures the aggregate change in liquidity from a point in time, in other words it is just the summation of the marginal liquidity gap for each of the days included in the period under consideration. The residual liquidity gap goes one step further and adds available 'opening balance' of liquidity to the cumulative liquidity gap to reveal the days or times when the net liquidity is most at risk.
Liquidity at Risk measures the expected time to survival at a certain confidence level applied to the firm's cash flows - and is not a measure of the liquidity gap.
Therefore Choice 'a' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 289
Which of the following are attributes of a robust stress testing programme at a bank?

  • A. All of the above
  • B. Robust systems infrastructure
  • C. Data of appropriate quality and granularity
  • D. Written policies and procedures

Answer: A

Explanation:
A bank's stress testing programme in relation to firm wide stress tests should document the type, frequency and the purpose of the programme, as well as methodologies for defining scenarios and the remedial actions envisaged. Choice 'b' is therefore a necessary attribute of a robust stress testing programme.
The programme should be supported by a robust systems infrastructure that allows the execution of periodic as well as ad-hoc stress tests at the right level (business unit, as well as firm-wide) at the right level of detail or granularity. Choice 'c' also therefore is a valid choice.
A related element is data quality - without which no stress tests can be be credible.
Therefore all the choices listed are correct and Choice 'd' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 290
Which of the following are true:
I. The total of the component VaRs for all components of a portfolio equals the portfolio VaR.
II. The total of the incremental VaRs for each position in a portfolio equals the portfolio VaR.
III. Marginal VaR and incremental VaR are identical for a $1 change in the portfolio.
IV. The VaR for individual components of a portfolio is sub-additive, ie the portfolio VaR is less than (or in extreme cases equal to) the sum of the individual VaRs.
V. The component VaR for individual components of a portfolio is sub-additive, ie the portfolio VaR is less than the sum of the individual component VaRs.

  • A. I, III and IV
  • B. II and V
  • C. I and II
  • D. II and IV

Answer: A

Explanation:
Statement I is true - component VaR for individual assets in the portfolio add up to the total VaR for the portfolio. This property makes component VaR extremely useful for risk disaggregation and allocation.
Stateent II is incorrect, the incremental VaRs for the positions in a portfolio do not add up to the portfolio VaR, in fact their sum would be greater.
Statement III is correct. Marginal VaR for an asset or position in the portfolio is by definition the change in the VaR as a result of a $1 change in that position. Incremental VaR is the change in the VaR for a portfolio from a new position added to the portfolio - and if that position is $1, it would be identical to the marginal VaR.
Statement IV is correct, VaR is sub-additive due to the diversification effect. Adding up the VaRs for all the positions in a portfolio will add up to more than the VaR for the portfolio as a whole (unless all the positions are 100% correlated, which effectively would mean they are all identical securities which means the portfolio has only one asset).
Statement V is in incorrect. As explained for Statement I above, component VaR adds up to the VaR for the portfolio.


NEW QUESTION # 291
A cumulative accuracy plot:

  • A. measures accuracy of default probabilities observed empirically
  • B. measures rating accuracy
  • C. measures the accuracy of credit risk estimates
  • D. is a measure of the correctness of VaR calculations

Answer: B

Explanation:
A cumulative accuracy plot measures the accuracy of credit ratings assigned by rating agencies by considering the relative rankings of obligors according to the ratings given. Choice 'd' is the correct answer.


NEW QUESTION # 292
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